Proteinuria, anti-dsDNA autoantibodies and immune complex deposits could not be detected in young (2 months old) mice. CD74 acts as a mediator of B-cell proliferation and survival by initiating a signalling cascade following

MIF binding.17,19 We therefore determined the CD74 mRNA levels in B cells from 8-month-old SLE-afflicted mice with established disease (defined as 100%) in comparison with its levels in B cells from 2-month-old young, healthy control mice. As shown in Fig. 1(a), Buparlisib datasheet CD74 mRNA levels were significantly elevated in the B cells of SLE-afflicted mice compared with its levels in the cells of young mice. The levels of CD74 in B cells of mice with SLE were further determined at the protein level by Western blotting. The results of a representative blot of CD74 from three experiments performed are presented in Fig. 1(b). CD74 protein levels were elevated in B cells derived from SLE-afflicted mice compared with those of young healthy controls. CD44 was found to be essential for the MIF-induced signalling cascade.22,23 It was of interest to determine whether the expression of CD44 required for the CD74-induced cascade19 is also up-regulated in the SLE-diseased mice and whether their ligand, MIF, is similarly affected. Furthermore, the ability of hCDR1 to immunomodulate the latter molecules was studied. To this end, RNA was extracted from purified spleen-derived B cells of mice

from vehicle, hCDR1 or control peptide-treated selleck compound library very mice, obtained at the end of the experiments, and was examined by real-time reverse transcription-PCR. Figure 2 presents the percentage gene expression of MIF and its receptor complex components (CD74 and CD44) in the three treatment groups. The figure shows that treatment with hCDR1 significantly down-regulated the expression levels of

the studied molecules, whereas treatment with the control peptide either did not affect their expression or slightly up-regulated the expression (in the case of MIF). Western blot analysis, shown in Fig. 3(a), confirmed that, in agreement with the mRNA expression levels, treatment with hCDR1 resulted in reduced expression of CD74 protein in B lymphocytes, compared with the expression of the latter in vehicle and control peptide-treated mice. We also examined the cell surface expression of the receptor complex components CD74 and CD44 on B cells from spleens of BWF1 mice that were treated with hCDR1 or vehicle only, using flow cytometry. As shown in Fig. 3(b), B cells derived from hCDR1-treated mice expressed lower cell surface levels of CD74 (13·8%) and CD44 (30·4%) compared with B cells from the vehicle-treated mice (23·8% and 39%, respectively). Figure 3(c) shows the significant down-regulation in the mean percentage change, determined in three individual experiments, of surface expression of CD74 and CD44 in B cells from SLE-afflicted mice following hCDR1 treatment compared with vehicle-treated mice.

Ag43/Fcε3, as a protein vaccine, produced neutralizing autoantibodies to murine IgE, induced significant anti-asthma effects, and regulated IgE and T helper cytokines in a murine asthma model. Data show that Ag43/Fcε3 chimeric protein is a potential model vaccine for asthma treatment, and that the Ag43 system may be an effective tool for novel vaccine preparation to break immune tolerance to other self-molecules. “
“Infection with Listeria induces a dominant shift to the Th1

immune response and inhibits the Th2 response. Papain is frequently utilized in animal models MAPK Inhibitor Library chemical structure of allergies. Papain administration induces chemotaxis of basophils to regional lymph nodes (LNs) and production of interleukin (IL)-4 by basophils, resulting in a Th2-dominant status and increased IgE production in LNs. In this model, production of immunoglobulin (Ig) E by LN cells is primarily

controlled by IL-4 produced by basophils. Based on this model, it was postulated that Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) infection suppresses IgE production by LN cells. Therefore, the effects of Lm infection on a papain-induced mouse model of allergies were investigated. Following s.c. injection of papain, basophils transiently migrated to draining LNs because of the effects of chemokine (C–C) motif ligand (CCL) 24 and secreted IL-4, inducing see more a Th2 response. Lm infection blocked recruitment of basophils into the popliteal LNs by inhibiting CCL24 production. Papain-induced class switch Cepharanthine recombination (CSR) to IgE is inhibited by Lm infection, whereas CSR to IgG1 is not affected by the same treatment. Therefore, the CSR of IgG1 to IgE is basophil-dependent, whereas the CSR of IgM to IgG1 is basophil-independent. Hence, Lm infection suppresses CSR to IgE without affecting CSR to IgG1. “
“The DNA damage response (DDR) alerts the immune system to the danger posed by DNA damage through the induction of damage-associated molecular pattern molecules, chemokines, and ligands for activating immune receptors such as lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1 (LFA-1), NKG2D, and DNAX accessory molecule 1 (DNAM-1). Here we provide evidence that OVA257–264-pulsed

fibroblasts gain the ability to activate naïve OT-I CD8+ T cells in response to DNA damage. The ability of fibroblasts to activate OT-I CD8+ T cells depended on the upregulation of ICAM-1 on fibroblasts and DNAM-1 expression of CD8+ T cells. OVA257–264-pulsed fibroblasts were able to induce a protective T-cell response against B16-OVA cells in a DDR-dependent manner. Hence, the DDR may alert the immune system to the presence of potentially dangerous cells by upregulating the expression of ligands that can induce the activation of innate and adaptive immune cells. “
“Immunoglobulins (Igs) play important immunomodulatory effects on allergic asthma. Among these, IgG has been reported to regulate allergic inflammation in previous studies about immunotherapy and intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

2% in Thailand.[12, 28] Overall mortality rates are reported to be around 40% in Thailand and 14% in Australia.[4, 12] Recurrent melioidosis following completion of therapy was once seen in up to 30% of cases but is now much less common. Most cases have been due to poor compliance with therapy or inadequate duration of therapy (see below).[12, 24, 29] Around three-fourths of recurrent infections

have been attributed to relapse of the original organism and the remainder have been due to reinfection with a new strain of B. pseudomallei.[30] Melioidosis can potentially cause sepsis-induced acute kidney injury which has been described in a single retrospective study comprising of 220 patients with melioidosis, out of which, 77 patients with septicaemia were complicated by acute kidney injury which was defined in that study as impairment of creatinine this website to over 177 μmol/L along with failure to improve renal function with volume expansion.[31] In that series, acute tubular necrosis, interstitial nephritis

and microabscess formation were seen with limited numbers of histopathologies studied. A case of nephrotic syndrome with hypocomplementaemia with predominantly low C3 and mildly low C4 components in a patient with solitary kidney and melioidosis NVP-BGJ398 has been reported. The nephrotic syndrome resolved rapidly and spontaneously during antimicrobial therapy, and kidney biopsy was not performed. The postulated mechanism Vildagliptin was immune-complex mediated glomerular injury with possible alternative

pathway activation of the complement system.[32] Melioidosis should be suspected in any febrile patient with underlying risk factors residing in, or travelling from, an endemic area. Early diagnosis is prudent to prevent mortality as empirical antibiotic regimens used for suspected bacterial sepsis often do not cover B. pseudomallei adequately. Depending on clinical presentation, diagnosis is confirmed by microbial culture of sputum, blood, urine, skin lesion swab or pus derived from abscesses. Microbial cultures of rectal and throat swabs placed into Ashdown’s selective medium are useful in patients suspected to have melioidosis. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy of infected body fluid in Thailand allowed diagnosis to be made within 30 min with 98% specificity and 70% sensitivity compared with culture, but this methodology is not commercially available.[33] Despite being widely used, serology testing with indirect haemagglutination assay is unreliable for diagnosis due to high false negativity rates in acute sepsis[34] and high positive antibody titres in healthy individuals in endemic areas due to repeated natural exposure to B. pseudomallei and antigenically related saprophytic organisms.

Protein kinases have thus already been suggested as promising targets in drug design against schistosomiasis (74), selleck and their suitability as targets in cestodes has recently been demonstrated by Gelmedin et al. (75) who identified pyridinyl imidazoles, directed against the p38 subfamily of mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPK), as a novel family of anti-Echinococcus compounds. A number of E. multilocularis protein kinases such as the Erk- and p38-like MAPKs EmMPK1 (76) and EmMPK2 (75), respectively, the MAPK kinases EmMKK1 and

EmMKK2 (77), or the Raf-like MAPK kinase kinase EmRaf (78) have already been characterized on the molecular and biochemical level, and particularly in the case of the two

MAPKs, functional biochemical ABT-888 in vivo assays have been established that can be used for compound screening (75,76). Of further interest are already characterized receptor kinases of the insulin- (EmIR; 79), the epidermal growth factor- (EmER; 80) and the transforming growth factor-β- (EmTR1; 81) receptor families that are expressed by the E. multilocularis metacestode stage and that are involved in host–parasite cross-communication by interacting with the evolutionary conserved cytokine- and hormone-ligands that are abundantly present in the intermediate host’s liver (1,72). In total, we could thus far identify ∼250 protein kinase-encoding genes on the genome assembly versions of E. multilocularis

(Table 3) and E. granulosus, the majority of which displays considerable homologies to orthologous genes in schistosomes, which could be particularly important for the design of compounds that have a broad spectrum of activity not only against cestodes but also against other parasitic flatworms. An important issue in rational drug design is not only the identification PFKL of targets that display structural and functional differences between the respective parasite and host components, thus ensuring that compounds with sufficient parasite specificity can be found, but also the general ‘druggability’ of the target, i.e., whether it contains structural features that favour interactions with small molecule compounds (82). Apart from protein kinases, several other protein families such as G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCR) or ligand-gated ion channels proved to be particularly druggable in previous compound screens and chemogenomic approaches (83). For a selection of protein families that are particularly suitable as drug targets, Table 3 lists the number of coding genes that we have identified using the current E. multilocularis genome assembly. In addition to a large number of protein kinases, several of which are already under study in the E.

Complete remission was seen in 32% at a mean time of 6.4 months, partial remission in 23% at a mean time of 5.7 months and 45% had no remission. Relapse rate was 14% at a mean time of 2.8 years during follow up. FSGS- NOS was the commonest subtype of FSGS (present in 56%), followed by tip variant in 24%, perihilar type in 10%, cellular in 9% and collapsing in 1%. IWR-1 clinical trial Persistent nephrotic proteinuria at 3rd and 6th month and presence of interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy >30% in renal biopsy were independent predictors of poor response

to treatment. Male gender, nephrotic proteinuria at onset, persistent nephrotic proteinuria at 3 and 6 months, renal failure at onset, persistent renal failure at 3 and 6 months, presence of hypertension, anemia, interstitial fibrosis

and tubular atrophy of >30% in renal biopsy and no remission after treatment predict the progression to CKD. Renal survival at 5 years for complete remission was 69%, partial remission was selleckchem 49% and no remission was 42%. Conclusion: FSGS-NOS was the commonest subtype(56%) in our study. Persistent nephrotic proteinuria at 6 months, interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy >30% and no remission after treatment were found to be independent risk factors and presence of interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy >30% in renal biopsy was the strong predictor for development of ESRD in our study. Renal survival at 5 years for complete remission was 69%, partial remission was 49% and no remission was 42%. ZHANG CHANGMING1, ZHANG WANFEN1, CHEN HUIMEI1, LIU CHUNBEI1, WU JUNNAN1, LI LIMIN2, SHI SHAOLIN1, ZEN KE1,2, LIU ZHIHONG1 1Research institute of nephrology, Jinling hospital, Nanjing University

School of Medicine, Nanjing, China; 2JERC-MBB, State Key Laboratory of Pharmaceutical Biotechnology, School of Life Sciences, Nanjing University, Nanjing, Montelukast Sodium China Introduction: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are stable in circulation, and their unique expression profiles can serve as fingerprints for various diseases. In this study, we determined whether human plasma miRNAs could be used as biomarkers to diagnose active focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS). Methods: Pooled plasma samples from 9 FSGS patients with nephrotic range proteinuria (active FSGS, FSGS-A) and 9 normal controls (NC), respectively, were analyzed by miRNA TaqMan Low Density Array (TLDA), and the two miRNA profiles were compared. The differentially expressed miRNAs were confirmed by real-time reverse transcription-PCR (qRT-PCR) using 32 patients of FSGS-A versus 30 NCs and 37 patients of FSGS-A versus 35 FSGS in remission (FSGS-CR), respectively. Receiver operation characteristics (ROC) curves were utilized to evaluate the specificity and sensitivity of the miRNAs in predicting FSGS. Results: TaqMan Low Density Array analysis of plasma samples identified 45 miRNAs that were elevated or detectable only in FSGS-A group.

6B, do not always correlate well with the levels of Egr2 in normal thymocytes; notably, in population A, where Egr2 expression is lowest, there are substantial effects on Socs1 expression in Egr2f/fCD4Cre mice. We suggest that the regulation of Socs1 by Egr2 is biologically significant, as events previously documented as lying downstream of Socs1 signaling during selection were also affected in Egr2-deficient thymocytes. Egr2-deficient CD4+CD8lo cells were unable to correctly upregulate Bcl2 expression as would normally occur following resumption of cytokine

signaling 30, and this was linked to lowered levels of pStat5 and a reduced ability to survive in IL-7-supplemented medium. We note that survival might be further compromised by the loss of a small population of high-level expressors of IL-7R in Egr2-deficient CD4+CD8lo subsets. this website Regulation of Socs1 might also provide an explanation for the increase in numbers of CD8SP thymocytes in Egr2-Tg animals, as this fits well with the observations that in the absence of Socs1, CD8SP T-cell differentiation

is enhanced 33. It would be of great interest to determine whether gain of Socs1 is able to rescue this aspect of the Egr2-Tg phenotype. HSP inhibitor We and others have shown that following TCR ligation, both the MAPK and calcineurin signaling pathways are required for induction of Egr2

15, 22. The convergence of these pathways on Egr2 suggests it may lie at a crucial control point in the selection process. Previously, it has been suggested that the expression levels and activity of Egr proteins combine to modulate positive selection following TCR ligation 24. Where the signal is strong, as in the highest affinity TCR interactions with peptide-MHC, Egr2 and its relatives Egr1 and Egr3 are induced at high levels and are not the rate-limiting step in the selection process. However, where the TCR is weak enough for a thymocyte to be on the boundary between positive selection and death by neglect, increased amounts of Egr proteins permit positive selection to occur, and decreased amounts cause the cell to fail selection. Our data suggest Methane monooxygenase an extension of this model whereby titration of the levels of Egr2 by TCR signal strength could perhaps modulate the cytokine-mediated survival signal by regulating the level of Socs1, thus fine-tuning the process of positive selection. Egr2-Tg mice were made by microinjection into oocytes of Sfi1-linearised pVAhCD2 plasmid 40 containing LoxP-flanked DsRed and Egr2 cDNA. Details of construct are available upon request. Other strains used have been previously published as follows: CD4Cre 27; Egr2f/f28 MHC-deficient mice 41, 42, Rag2−/−43, Rag1−/−44, TCR-β F5 45, TCR-β HY 46 and TCR-β OTII 47.

The success of these techniques offers the potential to re-establish

flow to large segmental losses to axial arteries, offer safe and definitive flap coverage to traumatic wounds, improve the array of flap options in this setting, and minimize donor site morbidity. © 2012 Wiley Periodicals, Inc. Microsurgery, 2012. “
“The deep inferior epigastric artery perforator (DIEP) flap has been a valuable tool in breast reconstruction, but seldom in extremity reconstruction. The aim of this report is to present our experience on the use of the DIEP flap for reconstruction of soft-tissue defects in the extremities of pediatric patients. From January 2007 to February 2011, 22 consecutive free DIEP flap transfers were performed

for reconstruction of complex soft-tissue defects in the extremities of children with a mean age of 5.7 years old (ranging 2–10 years old). Alvelestat mouse The flap design included transverse, oblique, and irregular DIEP flaps, containing one to three perforators in the flap. The flap size ranged from 7 × 4 cm to 18 × 17 cm. Primary donor-site closure was accomplished in all of patients. The postoperative course was uneventfully in most of cases. The venous Selleck ICG-001 congestion was observed in two cases. One case of venous congestion was caused by flap inset with tension. The other case with venous thrombosis ended with partial loss of the flap after salvage procedure. There was one total flap loss due to the arterial thrombosis. The flap survival rate was 95.5%. The mean follow-up was 12 months (ranging 6–36 months). All reconstructed extremities had satisfactory aesthetic and functional outcomes except two cases undergoing the secondary debulking many procedures. The donor sites healed well in all cases without complications. Our experience showed that the free DIEP flap could be an alternative for reconstruction of soft-tissue defects in the extremities of children. © 2013 Wiley Periodicals, Inc. Microsurgery 33:612–619, 2013. “
“Advantages of virtual-reality

simulators surgical skill assessment and training include more training time, no risk to patient, repeatable difficulty level, reliable feedback, without the resource demands, and ethical issues of animal-based training. We tested this for a key subtask and showed a strong link between skill in the simulator and in reality. Suturing performance was assessed for four groups of participants, including experienced surgeons and naive subjects, on a custom-made virtual-reality simulator. Each subject tried the experiment 30 times using five different types of needles to perform a standardized suture placement task. Traditional metrics of performance as well as new metrics enabled by our system were proposed, and the data indicate difference between trained and untrained performance.

Therefore, the attenuating effect of AZM on GVHD might be due partly to its control of bacteria. Concerning the timing and dose of oral AZM, we chose a regimen of 100 mg/kg orally for 5 days starting from day −2 to day 2. Amsden et al. [55] reported that the blood concentration of the drug in humans became stable (0·5–1·0 mg/ml) after 3 or 5 days of oral AZM. The 100 mg/kg/day Mdm2 antagonist dosage was used because

it corresponds to the human dosage after size correction [56]. Accumulating evidence indicates that early interaction between allogeneic T lymphocytes and residual recipient APCs immediately after allo-BMT is critical for eliciting acute GVHD [6, 10]. Zhang et al. [57] studied the kinetic window during which recipient APCs elicited acute GVHD in a murine model and demonstrated that recipient DCs were activated and aggregated rapidly in T lymphocyte-rich areas of the spleen within 6 h after lethal irradiation. By 5 days after irradiation, <1% of recipient DCs were detectable, but the activated donor CD8+ T lymphocytes had already undergone as many as seven divisions. This indicates that, although recipient DCs disappear rapidly after allo-BMT, they first prime donor

T lymphocytes and play a critical role in BGJ398 concentration triggering donor CD8+ T lymphocyte-mediated GVHD. In our transplantation model, AZM-treated recipients developed GVHD in the later phase. Although Zhang et al. [57] demonstrated the critical, early role of DCs in initiating acute GVHD, they also found that a small number of radio-resistant recipient DCs remained even at 4 months after allo-BMT

and pointed out the possibility that they might be important in amplifying the GVHD response. Further studies are necessary to elucidate later events in the induction of acute GVHD. Taken together, Methocarbamol our results suggest that blockade of DC–T lymphocyte interaction by inactivating DCs with AZM, i.e. DC targeting, might require administration of the drug for a short period before and after BMT. It is this period that should be targeted in an attempt to attenuate acute GVHD. Moreover, this treatment might not be accompanied by suppression of the beneficial GVL effect, as oral AZM had no effect on the lymphocyte functions of mice. AZM already has a history of use in the treatment of bacterial infections, so its administration should also be safe in patients undergoing BMT for haematological disorders. Similarly to bortezomib [23], AZM could be used singly or in conjunction with immunosuppressants to prevent acute GVHD in various clinical settings. AZM also seems to have potential for use in treating already developed GVHD. Further studies of the in-vivo effects of AZM in allogeneic BMT are clearly warranted. We thank Dr Takashi Iwamoto of Chubu College of Life and Health Sciences for technical advice and Miyuki Namikata for technical assistance.

After incubation for further 24 h, an ELISA specific for incorporated BrdU in DNA of proliferating cells was performed according to the manufacturer’s instructions, and absorbance was read at

450 nm on a 96-well plate spectrophotometer (Versamax; Molecular Devices, Sunnyvale CA, USA). Values were corrected for turbidity by measuring absorbance at 595 nm. Data sets were compared by the Student’s t-test using the Microsoft Excel program. Differences were considered significant when P-values were <0·05. To quantify DCs, peritoneal cells from mice infected with E. multilocularis metacestodes and from naïve C57BL/6 mice were stained with anti-CD11c and analysed by flow cytometry. The percentage of CD11c-positive AE-pe-DCs at the early stage of infection (6 weeks p.i.) increased AZD4547 nmr to reach 4% of the total number of Nutlin-3 ic50 peritoneal cells (12% of gated cells), while naive pe-DCs (as control)

represented 2% (3% of gated cells), (Figure 1a). Thus, DCs were clearly recruited into the peritoneal cavity, the site of metacestode infection. CD11c+ pe-DCs were enriched and analysed for the mRNA levels of selected cytokines. Pe-DCs from metacestode-infected mice had significantly higher mRNA levels of TGF-β as compared to naïve DCs, while IL-10 and IL-12 mRNA levels remained low and practically similar to that of naive DCs (Figure 1b). CD4+ pe-T cells obtained from naive mice (as control) and AE-infected mice were enriched and analysed for mRNA levels of selected cytokines. As shown in Figure 2,

CD4+ pe-T cells from AE-infected mice had significantly higher levels of IL-4 than IFN-γ mRNA, representative, respectively, for a Th2- vs. a Th1-oriented Suplatast tosilate immune response. Furthermore, these cells expressed a high level of IL-2 and particularly TGF-β mRNA, while CD4+ pe-T cells from noninfected control mice had low and not significantly different expression levels for all cytokines assessed. These results suggested that at a transcriptional level, the intraperitoneal immune response of AE-infected mice was rather Th2 oriented and that immunomodulatory effects via TGF-β may be predominantly involved in determining the development of infection and disease. Pe-DCs were obtained from AE-infected mice at early and late stages of infection, as well as from naïve mice, and analysed by flow cytometry for the surface expression of selected major co-stimulatory molecules. Figure 3 demonstrates that in comparison with naive pe-DCs (control), the surface expression of CD80 and CD86 was down-regulated, while CD40 remained significantly expressed on pe-DCs from early and late stages of AE-infection. The expression of the adhesion molecule ICAM-1 (CD54) was slightly up-regulated on AE-pe-DCs at early stage of infection, but remained practically unchanged on late-stage AE-pe-DCs. Co-stimulatory molecules CD80 and CD86, prerequisites for an efficient T-cell stimulation, appeared to be suppressed in AE-infected mice.

A variety of studies now indicate that retinal vasodilation during flicker light simulation is reduced in diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia and obesity, and may be influenced by age and race/ethnicity. These data suggest that flicker light-induced retinal vasodilation may be a unique and non-invasive measure of endothelial dysfunction. This review focuses recent studies on systemic associations of flicker light-induced retinal vasodilation, and discusses the potential for future research in this area. “
“Refractory angina is the occurrence

of clinical symptoms despite maximal therapy. We investigated associations between microvascular function, atherosclerotic burden, and clinical symptoms in subjects with CAD. Skin microvascular response Y-27632 manufacturer to heating and ischemia was assessed in 167 male volunteers by laser Doppler fluximetry; 82 with CAD on maximal Raf inhibition therapy

and 85 with no known CAD (noCAD). CAC scores, carotid IMT, and femoral IMT were measured and symptoms were scored using the Rose angina questionnaire. Patients with CAD had poorer microvascular response to heating (114[95% CI 106–122]au CAD vs. 143[134–153]au no CAD; p < 0.0001) and ischemia (42[38–46]au CAD vs. 53[78–58]au. noCAD; p = 0.001). Thirty-eight percent of the noCAD group had elevated CAC scores. There were no associations between markers of atherosclerosis and microvascular function. Forty-two percent of the CAD group had refractory angina. This was associated with impaired microvascular function compared to those with elevated CAC scores but no symptoms (109 [95–124]au vs. 131[122–140]au; p = 0.008). Men with symptomatic CAD have poorer microvascular function compared to individuals without CAD. Microvascular function does not correlate with atherosclerosis, but is impaired in individuals with refractory angina. Microvascular dysfunction may play a role in the symptomatology of angina. "
“Please cite this paper as: Bierbach B, Scheewe J, Derfuss Acyl CoA dehydrogenase T, Krug A, Schramm R, Dahm M, Kuroczynski W, Kempski O, Horstick G. Continuous regional myocardial blood flow measurement: validation of a near-infrared laser Doppler device in a porcine

model. Microcirculation 19: 485–493, 2012. Objective:  RMBF measurement is a major concern in various clinical and experimental settings, but no validated device for RMBF is currently available. Methods:  An LVP-triggered laser Doppler to measure RMBF was validated by simultaneous fluorescent MS RMBF in a porcine LAD flow reduction model (n = 10 pigs). The laser probe was positioned on the left ventricle’s anterior wall. LAD blood flow reduction was achieved by a shaft-driven occluder positioned proximal to the transit-time flow meter measuring coronary blood flow. RMBF was measured at baseline; after the reduction of LAD blood flow to 70% and 30% of baseline; at 20 and 120 minutes of reperfusion; and, finally, 15 minutes after LAD occlusion.